“A man in dilemma is a man with no moral”
I know it’s a bit too strong to propose a statement like this, but nothing is too strong for a philosopher :)
Let us begin the enquiry with a dilemma of moral dilemma that already been discussed in previous entry. A man in dilemma is ought to do Y and ought not to do Y. The problem with this statement is that it is contradicting. I for sure cannot be in England at the same time I am not in England. It just cannot be true. But one cannot reject that we in real life do experience ought to do and ought not to do concurrently. I ought to go to dinner but I ought not to go because I already made promise to go to concert as well.
Let us assume that the statement do contradict and cannot exist in parallel. Given two options that first we thought as a dilemma, the dilemma is automatically deprive because the two options is just not realistic. It cannot exist together. Then the option is not an option at all. It has transform to become item of preference—one which is superior or poorer from the other one. As a result, the two options we thought we had and which cause the dilemma earlier, has always been preferred of one item from the other. It is just the case of ignorance in which is the preferred one.
Because the preference is always there, it must be govern by some law. If I prefer fish to chicken, then the reason of the liking is the law—in our case, the moral outlook.
The moral outlook is the one that ensured “ought to” and “ought not to” to be incompatible to each other thus result in the deprivation of dilemma.
In contrary, let us assume that the statement of ought to and ought not to are compatible, if in the first case the incompatibility is cause by the existence of moral outlook, the compatibility must now cause by the removal of it. We can now proceed to conclude that dilemma can only exist if there is no moral outlook thus verify the earlier statement that a man in dilemma is a man with no moral outlook.


